Emergency Medical Technicians
The terms –or designations- ‘Ambulance Technician’ and Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) are utilized in certain countries in order to indicate a health care provider who offers medical services at an emergency capacity. EMTs are clinicians, who are trained to respond rapidly to emergency situations. These urgent matters could be with respect to medical matters, traumatic or catastrophic injuries and accidents of all natures.
EMTs are most commonly found working in ambulances, but should not be confused with “ambulance drivers” or “ambulance attendants
0 of 30 questions completed
Click “Start Quiz” to begin…
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
- Question 1 of 30
When someone has loss of speech, difficulty speaking, difficulty understanding speech, and weakness or numbness in the face ND limbs, particularly on one side of the body, are signs and symptoms of which of the following emergencies?CorrectIncorrect
Stroke is caused by a loss of brain function, leading to difficulty speaking, loss of speech, difficulty understanding speech, and weakness or numbness in the face in limbs, particularly on one side of the body. Signs and symptoms of seizures include convulsions and muscle rigidity, so Choice A is false. Hypothyroidism is characterized by fatigue, lethargy, slow mental function, and waxy appearance, making Choice B incorrect. Cushing’s syndrome is associated with weight gain and fat accumulation; therefore, Choice D is false.
- Question 2 of 30
When an EMT receives an emergency call, which of the following procedures MUST be performed every time?
I. Support and maintain ABCs
II. Obtain SAMPLE and OPQRST histories
III. Treat for shock
IV. Quickly apply a tourniquetCorrectIncorrect
An EMT must always check, support, and maintain a patient’s airway, circulation, and breathing, as well as inquire about medical history and events leading to the emergency, making Choice B the correct answer. Not all emergency medical situations will result in shock nor will a tourniquet always be necessary.
- Question 3 of 30
A type of abdominal pain caused by stimulation of an organ’s nerve fibers due to stretching of the organ’s wall is referred to as which of the following?CorrectIncorrect
Visceral pain is caused by stimulation to an organ’s nerve fibers due to stretching of the organ’s wall, so Choice A is the correct answer. Parietal pain is caused by irritation to parietal peritoneal wall, making Choice B false. Referred pain occurs when a radiating pain is felt elsewhere than the point of origin, so Choice C is also false. Somatic pain, which was not discussed, is caused by injury to the bones, muscles, skin, and connective tissues, making D incorrect as well.
- Question 4 of 30
A 24-year-old male patient presents with pain in the lower-right quadrant of the abdomen. Which of the following is the likeliest cause of the pain?CorrectIncorrect
The organs found in the lower-right quadrant of the abdomen are the appendix, small intestine, and female reproductive organs. Kidney stones are felt more in the back and side, as the kidneys are located in the retroperitoneal space, making Choice A false. Food poisoning is usually felt in the stomach and intestinal area and usually presents with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea; therefore, Choice B is incorrect. The urinary bladder isn’t found in the lower-right quadrant of the abdomen, so Choice D is incorrect. A key symptom of appendicitis is pain in the lower-right quadrant, making Choice C the correct answer.
- Question 5 of 30
Which of the following is NOT a step that should be followed when performing an abdominal exam?CorrectIncorrect
The only way that an EMT can perform an abdominal exam is with the patient lying face up, known as supine position. Having the patient lie prone, or face down, makes an abdominal exam impossible, so Choice B is the correct answer. Every other choice is correct for the appropriate way to perform an abdominal exam.
- Question 6 of 30
A 43-year-old female patient presents with difficulty breathing, swollen lips and eyes, tightness of chest, and dizziness. The emergency call has come from a restaurant. Which of the following treatments should be given to the patient?CorrectIncorrect
Based on the description of the signs and symptoms, one can conclude that the patient is suffering from anaphylaxis, meaning that she will require a shot of epinephrine, making Choices A and D both incorrect. Because the patient is 40 years old, she will need 0.30 mg of epinephrine, the correct adult dose; therefore, Choice C is the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect, because 0.15 mg is the dose for a pediatric patient.
- Question 7 of 30
Which of the following infectious diseases is transmitted through airborne particles and presents with a persistent cough, night sweats, and hemoptysis?CorrectIncorrect
Tuberculosis is an infection of the lungs that causes a persistent cough, night sweats, and hemoptysis, or coughing blood. It’s transmitted via coughing, making Choice A the correct answer. Meningitis is transmitted through saliva and contaminated hands and presents with none of the stated symptoms, so Choice B is incorrect. Choice C is false because coughing blood isn’t a common sign and symptom of pneumonia, and Choice D is incorrect because influenza presents with fever, muscle aches, chills, and respiratory problems.
- Question 8 of 30
When responding to an infectious emergency, which of the following must an EMT do first?CorrectIncorrect
- Question 9 of 30
The primary function of the endocrine system is to maintain which of the following?CorrectIncorrect
- Question 10 of 30
Which of the following organs functions both as an endocrine and exocrine gland?CorrectIncorrect
The pancreas functions as an exocrine gland because it secretes enzymes that break down food components. It also functions as an endocrine gland because it secretes hormones that regulate blood sugar levels. The kidney isn’t a gland; it is an organ located directly below the adrenal glands. The stomach is an exocrine gland because it secretes hydrochloric acid. Like the kidney, the spleen is an organ, not a gland. Therefore, the only correct answer is C.
- Question 11 of 30
A 58-year-old female patient presents with a waxy and swollen appearance, fatigue, cold intolerance, hypothermia, hypotension, and bradycardia. Which of the following diseases might the patient have?CorrectIncorrect
Hypothyroidism is caused by too little thyroid hormone, which regulates metabolism, causing a hypoactive metabolism and leading to a waxy and swollen appearance, cold intolerance, hypothermia, hypotension, and bradycardia. Hyperthyroidism is caused by an excess of thyroid hormone and causes a hyperactive metabolism, resulting in weight loss and loss of appetite, so Choice A is incorrect. Diabetes is caused by an issue with insulin production or utilization and blood glucose imbalance, and the signs and symptoms are frequent urination, increased thirst, and excessive hunger, so Choice C is false. Choice D is incorrect because Addison’s disease is caused by too little cortisol and aldosterone production, leading to hyperkalemia, darkening of the skin, and hypoglycemia.
- Question 12 of 30
A patient experiencing a hyperglycemic crisis, or diabetic ketoacidosis, will have which most prominent sign?CorrectIncorrect
A hyperglycemic crisis is characterized by too much blood sugar, which can lead a patient’s breath smelling fruity because of blood that passes through the lungs. Choice B is false because DKA doesn’t cause edema, so there would be no swollen legs and feet. Choice C is false, as buffalo hump is a symptom of Cushing’s disease. Choice D is incorrect, as a patient with DKA would present with deep and labored breathing, as opposed to shallow breathing.
- Question 13 of 30
A situation in which a patient may harm themselves or others— including attempted suicide, depression, and substance abuse— is called which of the following?CorrectIncorrect
A patient who may harm themselves or others— including attempted suicide, depression, and substance abuse— is a situation classified as a psychiatric emergency, so Choice B is correct. Toxicology deals with poisons, toxins, and substance abuse, so a toxicological emergency involving drugs and alcohol may also be categorized as a psychiatric emergency, but not always. Hematology involves blood-related emergencies, and immunology involves allergic reactions, so Choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
- Question 14 of 30
Upon arriving to the scene of a call, an EMT notices a strong odor and several unconscious people on the ground. Which of the following emergencies has most likely occurred?CorrectIncorrect
An emergency involving a strange odor and several unconscious people is indicative of an airborne poisoning, making this a toxicological emergency. Psychiatric emergencies involve mentally unstable patients, hematological emergencies are blood-related emergencies, immunological emergencies involve allergic reactions, and nothing within the question indicates mental instability or bleeding. The likelihood that multiple patients have the same allergy is unlikely, so Choices B, C, and D are incorrect.
- Question 15 of 30
A young African-American male presents with jaundice, signs of pneumonia, and priapism. Which of the following conditions might this patient have?CorrectIncorrect
Sickle cell disease is most common in African-Americans, and due to the abnormal shape and size of the blood cells, the liver cannot properly filter them, causing jaundice and yellowing of the eyes. The presence of priapism, resulting from the blood’s inability to exit the erection chambers, become trapped and cause a prolonged erection, making Choice C the correct answer. Hemophilia is the body’s inability to stop bleeding, and thrombophilia is the body’s inability to stop clotting. A urinary tract infection presents with different signs and symptoms than those described, such as painful urination and a frequent urge to urinate.
- Question 16 of 30
What is the name for the structural and functional units that create and transport urine, located in the cortex of the kidney?CorrectIncorrect
The nephron is the structural and functional unit that creates and transports urine. The glomerulus, loop of Henle, and distal tubule are parts of the nephron involved in creating and transporting urine depending on their respective functions, so Choice B is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect, as they represent only a part of the unit.
- Question 17 of 30
Podocytes, located in the Bowman’s capsule of the nephron, allow which of the following components to pass into the proximal tubule?CorrectIncorrect
Podocytes are slits that allow filterable components of the filtrate to pass through to the proximal tubule to become urine. Filterable components are water, nutrients, and nitrogenous waste. Non-filterable components are blood cells, platelets, and albumins. Choices A, B, and C are all non-filterable components, making Choice D the correct answer.
- Question 18 of 30
A 60-year-old male patient presents with hypertension, tachycardia, and pain and distention in his abdomen. He seems confused and disoriented. Upon obtaining his SAMPLE and OPQRST histories, the man reports that he hasn’t urinated in two days, despite drinking lots of water, and doesn’t have a history of kidney function loss. Which of the following diseases is the patient most likely experiencing?CorrectIncorrect
The most telling aspect of this man’s condition is that he hasn’t urinated in two days, indicative of some sort of renal condition, and that he doesn’t have a previous history of kidney function loss. Hypertension, tachycardia, and distention of the abdomen imply that urine cannot be formed, increasing blood pressure and causing edema. Acute renal failure is characterized by a sudden decrease in filtration through the glomeruli of the nephron, which causes all of these symptoms, as well as anuria (the complete cessation of urine production) to occur over a period of days or weeks, making Choice D the correct answer. Chronic renal failure, Choice A, is incorrect because the patient doesn’t have a history of renal disease and none of the respective signs and symptoms. Kidney stones are crystallized salts that form in the kidney and become trapped in the urinary tract, but they don’t stop urine production, so Choice B is false. A urinary tract infection doesn’t cease urine production, so Choice C is also incorrect.
- Question 19 of 30
The muscular tube that connects the outer surface to the cervix in a woman’s birth canal is referred to as which of the following?CorrectIncorrect
The uterus and ovaries aren’t part of the birth canal, so Choices A and D are false. The cervix is the uppermost portion of the birth canal, so Choice B is incorrect, making Choice C the correct answer, as the vagina is the muscular tube on the lowermost portion of the birth canal that connects the exterior environment to the cervix.
- Question 20 of 30
A 27-year-old female patient presents with extreme lower abdominal pain and fever. She is guarding her abdomen, which appears to be bloated. Which of the following conditions is the patient most likely experiencing?CorrectIncorrect
A patient with a tubo-ovarian abscess may present with severe abdominal pain, guarding of the abdomen, nausea and vomiting, fever, and abdominal distention. Although abdominal pain is typical of all of them, ruptured ovarian cysts, ovarian torsion, and ectopic pregnancies have different signs and symptoms, so Choices B, D, and C are incorrect.
- Question 21 of 30
An EMT receives a call to respond to a pregnant woman complaining of contractions. Upon arriving at the scene, the EMT discovers the baby is crowning. Which of the following must the EMT NOT do during delivery?CorrectIncorrect
Because an EMT needs to be completely present and ready for the delivery, an EMT shouldn’t monitor the mother (unless there are plenty of EMTs on site); someone else should be stationed at the head of the mother to report any concerning changes, making Choice A the correct answer. All other answer choices are procedures an EMT must perform in order to ensure a successful delivery, so Choices B, C, and D are incorrect.
- Question 22 of 30
The woman appears to be having a breech delivery. Which of the following should an EMT do to protect the baby from trauma?CorrectIncorrect
A breech delivery means that the baby is crowning buttocks-first, which can lead to suffocation, so an EMT will need to make a “V” with his or her fingers and insert them into the vagina in order to keep the airway open for the baby. An exposed limb indicates a limb presentation delivery, not a breech delivery, so Choice A is false. An EMT should cover the vagina with a sterile pad and collect expulsions only in the event of a spontaneous abortion, so Choice C is also false. If an EMT needs to rupture a sac, it indicates an unruptured amniotic sac, not a breech delivery, so Choice D is also incorrect.
- Question 23 of 30
Which of the following conditions is caused by the body’s immune system attacking its own insulin producing pancreatic cells?CorrectIncorrect
Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the body’s immune system attacking its own insulin-producing pancreatic cells, so Choice A is the correct answer. Type 2 diabetes is when the pancreas produces insulin but the body can’t effectively utilize it, and it isn’t an autoimmune disease like Type 1 diabetes. A hyperglycemic crisis can be caused by either Type 1 or Type 2, and a myxedema coma has nothing to do with diabetes.
- Question 24 of 30
Which of the following diabetic conditions typically presents itself in early childhood?CorrectIncorrect
Type 1 diabetes, or insulin-dependent diabetes, is an autoimmune disease that presents itself in early childhood. Type 2 diabetes and non-insulin dependent diabetes are both names for the same condition, so Choice B, and D are false. Gestational diabetes occurs during pregnancy, nor childhood, so Choice C is incorrect.
- Question 25 of 30
While taking a stroll in the park, an EMT hears a loud yelp. A young boy yells that he’s been stung. He shows signs of anaphylaxis and indicates the area where he was stung. The EMT inspects the area and finds a small but evident stinger lodged in his skin. Which of the following should the EMT NOT do?CorrectIncorrect
An EMT should never attempt to remove the stinger with tweezers, as tweezers will squeeze the remaining venom into the skin. Instead, an EMT should remove it with a credit card, so Choice D is incorrect. Patients experiencing anaphylaxis will generally need epinephrine, so it’s important to ask the patient if they have epinephrine on them, as many EMTs aren’t permitted to administer epinephrine, making Choice A incorrect. Further, anaphylaxis can cause shock, so the patient should be placed in shock position, making Choice B also false.
- Question 26 of 30
A 40-year-old female patient presents with jaundice, yellowing of her eyes, and abdominal pain. After supporting and maintaining her ABCs and obtaining her SAMPLE and OPQRST histories, she confesses to the EMT that she’s an IV heroin user. Which of the following diseases does the patient most likely have?CorrectIncorrect
All the respective signs and symptoms are characteristic of hepatitis; however, hepatitis B is specifically caused by sharing needles. As the patient is an IV heroin user, the correct answer is Choice B. Hepatitis A, C, and D have different modes of transmission.
- Question 27 of 30
Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for regulating metabolism?CorrectIncorrect
Thyroid hormone is responsible for regulating metabolism, so Choice D is the correct answer. Insulin is involved in glucose uptake into tissues, testosterone is for sperm production and secondary male sexual characteristics, and adrenaline is responsible for mechanisms in the flight-or-fight response, making Choices A, B, and C incorrect.
- Question 28 of 30
Which of the following signs and symptoms are characteristic of Cushing’s syndrome?CorrectIncorrect
Cushing’s syndrome occurs when the adrenal gland has been too active, producing too much cortisol, which stimulates the pituitary gland to produce too much adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). A patient with Cushing’s may present with a “moon-faced” appearance, weight gain, and fat accumulation on the upper back, called a “buffalo hump” as well as in the shoulders and/ or the abdomen, called a supraclavicular fat pad, making Choice A the correct answer. Extremely high fever (106 ° F or above), hypotension, and goiter are symptoms of hyperthyroidism, so Choice B is incorrect. Hyperkalemia, darkening of the skin, and hypoglycemia are signs of Addison’s disease, so C is incorrect. Deep and labored breathing, vomiting, abdominal pain, and unconsciousness indicate diabetes.
- Question 29 of 30
A cluster of capillaries that functions as the main filter of the blood entering the kidney is known as which of the following?CorrectIncorrect
A cluster of capillaries that functions as the main filter of the blood entering the kidney is known as the glomerulus, so Choice C is correct. The Bowman’s capsule surrounds the glomerulus and receives fluid and solutes from it; therefore, Choice A is incorrect. The loop of Henle is a part of the kidney tubule where water and nutrients are reabsorbed, so B is false. The nephron is the unit containing all of these anatomical features, making Choice D incorrect as well.
- Question 30 of 30
Which of the following STDs, if left untreated, is the most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?CorrectIncorrect
While bacterial vaginosis and gonorrhea may lead to PID, chlamydia causes the most cases of PID, making Choice D the correct answer. Genital herpes doesn’t involve the cervix or uterus, where PID occurs, so Choices A, B, and C are incorrect.